GENERAL AWARENESS in Education Sector

 

GENERAL AWARENESS NOTES (Education Sector)

1. Education System in India

a) Constitutional Provisions

  • Article 21-A – Free and compulsory education for children 6–14 years (Right to Education Act, 2009).
  • Article 45 – Early childhood care and education for 0–6 years.
  • Article 30 – Rights of minorities to establish and administer educational institutions.
  • Article 350A – Instruction in mother tongue at the primary stage.
  • Concurrent List (42nd Amendment, 1976) – Education moved from State List to Concurrent List.

2. Important Education Commissions & Committees

Pre-Independence

  • Hunter Commission (1882) – Focused on primary and secondary education.
  • Sadler Commission (1917) – Reforms in university education.
  • Hartog Committee (1929) – Checked wastage and stagnation at primary level.
  • Sargent Report (1944) – Blueprint for post-war educational development.

Post-Independence

  • Radhakrishnan Commission (1948–49) – University education reforms.
  • Mudaliar Commission (1952–53) – Secondary education improvement.
  • Kothari Commission (1964–66) – Major reforms; recommended 10+2+3 system and common school system.

3. National Education Policies

National Policy on Education 1968

  • Emphasized equal educational opportunities.
  • Introduced Three-Language Formula.

National Policy on Education 1986 (Modified 1992)

  • Focus on girl education.
  • Launched Operation Blackboard.
  • Establishment of Navodaya Vidyalayas.

National Education Policy (NEP) 2020

  • New structure: 5+3+3+4.
  • Holistic and multidisciplinary learning.
  • Focus on early childhood education (ECCE).
  • Mother tongue/local language as medium up to Grade 5.
  • School exams in classes 3, 5, 8.
  • Higher education reforms and Academic Bank of Credits.

4. Major Educational Schemes in India

  • Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan (SSA) – Universalization of elementary education.
  • Rashtriya Madhyamik Shiksha Abhiyan (RMSA) – Strengthening secondary education.
  • Mid-Day Meal Scheme – Nutritional support to school children.
  • Samagra Shiksha Abhiyan – Integrates SSA + RMSA + Teacher Education.
  • Beti Bachao Beti Padhao – Promotes girls’ education.
  • Skill India Mission – Vocational education and training.

5. Important Organisations (Education Related)

  • NCERT – Curriculum development, textbooks, teacher training.
  • NCTE – Regulates teacher education (B.Ed., D.El.Ed.).
  • UGC – Manages higher education and universities.
  • AICTE – Regulates technical and professional education.
  • NAAC – Assesses accreditation of higher institutions.
  • IGNOU – World’s largest open university.

6. Famous Educational Personalities

  • Mahatma Gandhi – Basic education (Nai Talim).
  • Rabindranath Tagore – Visva-Bharati University; learning in nature.
  • Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam – Vision 2020; focus on education and youth.
  • Savitribai Phule – Pioneer of women’s education.

7. Important Days (Education Related)

  • National Education Day – 11 November (Birth anniversary of Maulana Abul Kalam Azad).
  • International Literacy Day – 8 September.
  • National Science Day – 28 February.
  • Teacher’s Day – 5 September.
  • World Students’ Day – 15 October.

 Summary (Quick Revision)

  • RTE Act → 6–14 years.
  • NEP 2020 → 5+3+3+4 structure.
  • SSA + RMSA → Samagra Shiksha Abhiyan.
  • NCERT → school curriculum.
  • UGC → university funding.
  • NCTE → teacher education regulation.
  • Tagore → education in natural setting.
  • Kothari Commission → 10+2+3 system.

0 MCQs – General Awareness (Education)

 A. Constitutional Provisions

  1. The Right to Education (RTE) Act was implemented in which year?
    a) 2005
    b) 2009
    c) 2010
    d) 2008
  2. Article 21-A provides:
    a) Mid-day meals
    b) Free and compulsory education
    c) Secondary education
    d) Teacher training
  3. Education was moved to the Concurrent List by which amendment?
    a) 44th Amendment
    b) 42nd Amendment
    c) 52nd Amendment
    d) 93rd Amendment
  4. Article 45 deals with:
    a) Higher education
    b) Early childhood care
    c) Secondary education
    d) Technical education
  5. Article 350A ensures:
    a) Right to minority education
    b) Free adult education
    c) Mother tongue instruction
    d) Teacher training reforms
  6. RTE provides education for age group:
    a) 3–10 years
    b) 6–14 years
    c) 5–18 years
    d) 6–18 years
  7. Which article deals with minority educational rights?
    a) 14
    b) 29
    c) 30
    d) 39
  8. Which act prohibits physical punishment in schools?
    a) RTE Act 2009
    b) NPE 1986
    c) SSA
    d) Kothari Commission
  9. RTE mandates Pupil Teacher Ratio at primary level:
    a) 50:1
    b) 40:1
    c) 30:1
    d) 25:1
  10. Which part of the Constitution covers education after the 42nd amendment?
    a) State List
    b) Union List
    c) Concurrent List
    d) None

 B. Education Commissions

  1. Kothari Commission was established in:
    a) 1964–66
    b) 1952–53
    c) 1948–49
    d) 1934
  2. Which commission recommended the 10+2+3 system?
    a) Mudaliar
    b) Kothari
    c) Hunter
    d) Hartog
  3. Sadler Commission focused on:
    a) Primary education
    b) University education
    c) Technical education
    d) Teacher training
  4. Mudaliar Commission deals with:
    a) University education
    b) Secondary education
    c) Adult education
    d) Primary education
  5. Hartog Committee emphasized:
    a) Vocational education
    b) Wastage and stagnation
    c) Teacher training
    d) Distance education
  6. Sargent Report was published in:
    a) 1854
    b) 1882
    c) 1944
    d) 1917
  7. Radhakrishnan Commission is also called:
    a) Secondary Education Commission
    b) University Education Commission
    c) Adult Education Commission
    d) Primary Education Commission
  8. Which commission suggested a common school system?
    a) Hartog
    b) Kothari
    c) Mudaliar
    d) Radhakrishnan
  9. Hunter Commission formation year:
    a) 1854
    b) 1882
    c) 1917
    d) 1944
  10. University Grants Commission was recommended by:
    a) Mudaliar Commission
    b) Kothari Commission
    c) Radhakrishnan Commission
    d) Hartog Committee

 C. National Policies on Education

  1. NPE 1968 focused on:
    a) Teacher salary
    b) Three-language formula
    c) Skill development
    d) ICT education
  2. “Operation Blackboard” was launched under:
    a) NPE 1968
    b) NPE 1986
    c) NEP 2020
    d) RTE 2009
  3. NEP 2020 introduced which structure?
    a) 10+2
    b) 5+3+3+4
    c) 8+4
    d) 6+3+3
  4. Mother tongue as medium up to grade 5 is suggested in:
    a) NPE 1968
    b) NPE 1986
    c) NEP 2020
    d) RTE Act
  5. Navodaya Vidyalaya was introduced in:
    a) NPE 1968
    b) NPE 1986
    c) NEP 2020
    d) None
  6. Academic Bank of Credits is a feature of:
    a) NPE 1968
    b) NPE 1986
    c) NEP 2020
    d) SSA
  7. Continuous and Comprehensive Evaluation (CCE) was introduced under:
    a) NPE 1968
    b) NPE 1986
    c) NEP 2020
    d) None
  8. School exams at 3, 5, 8 are mandated by:
    a) NPE 1986
    b) NEP 2020
    c) RTE Act
    d) SSA

 D. Educational Schemes

  1. Mid-Day Meal Scheme was formally launched in:
    a) 1995
    b) 1986
    c) 2001
    d) 1990
  2. SSA aims at:
    a) Secondary education
    b) Elementary education
    c) Higher education
    d) Vocational education
  3. RMSA launched in:
    a) 2007
    b) 2009
    c) 2011
    d) 2005
  4. Samagra Shiksha integrates:
    a) SSA + RMSA + Teacher Education
    b) SSA + NEP
    c) RTE + SSA
    d) Only RMSA
  5. Beti Bachao Beti Padhao started in:
    a) 2014
    b) 2015
    c) 2016
    d) 2013
  6. Mid-Day Meal Scheme provides:
    a) Free uniform
    b) Nutritional meal
    c) Free textbooks
    d) Free transport
  7. Skill India Mission was launched in:
    a) 2014
    b) 2015
    c) 2016
    d) 2017
  8. Eklavya Model Residential School is for:
    a) SC
    b) ST
    c) OBC
    d) Minorities
  9. Vidyanjali program promotes:
    a) Private schooling
    b) Volunteer involvement
    c) Scholarships
    d) School infrastructure
  10. PM SHRI Schools were launched in:
    a) 2022
    b) 2020
    c) 2019
    d) 2023
  11. NIPUN Bharat focuses on:
    a) Vocational training
    b) Foundational literacy & numeracy
    c) Sports education
    d) ICT
  12. Shagun Portal is related to:
    a) Mid-day meals
    b) Teacher training
    c) School monitoring
    d) Education loans

 E. Educational Institutions & Bodies

  1. NCERT headquarters is in:
    a) Mumbai
    b) New Delhi
    c) Kolkata
    d) Bengaluru
  2. NCTE regulates:
    a) Higher education
    b) Technical education
    c) Teacher education
    d) Distance education
  3. NAAC assesses:
    a) Universities & colleges
    b) Schools
    c) ITIs
    d) Coaching institutes
  4. AICTE stands for:
    a) All India Council for Teacher Education
    b) All India Council for Technical Education
    c) All India Council for Training Engineers
    d) None
  5. CBSE was established in:
    a) 1929
    b) 1952
    c) 1962
    d) 1975
  6. UGC was established in:
    a) 1944
    b) 1948
    c) 1956
    d) 1966
  7. IGNOU was established in:
    a) 1982
    b) 1985
    c) 1986
    d) 1990
  8. NIOS provides:
    a) Teacher training
    b) Open schooling
    c) Technical courses
    d) IT education
  9. NIEPA deals with:
    a) Educational planning
    b) Technical education
    c) Sports education
    d) Distance education
  10. Kendriya Vidyalayas are run by:
    a) NCERT
    b) NCTE
    c) KVS
    d) CBSE
  11. NVS manages:
    a) Navodaya Vidyalayas
    b) Kendriya Vidyalayas
    c) Army Schools
    d) Sainik Schools
  12. NCVT is related to:
    a) Technical training
    b) Vocational training
    c) Teacher education
    d) Higher education
  13. DIET stands for:
    a) District Institute of Education and Training
    b) District Institute of English Teaching
    c) Development Institute for Education and Training
    d) None
  14. PM eVIDYA includes:
    a) One Nation One Digital Platform
    b) Skill development
    c) Teacher recruitment
    d) Only college reforms
  15. SWAYAM is a platform for:
    a) Online courses
    b) Mid-day meals
    c) School monitoring
    d) Physical education

 F. Educational Thinkers

  1. Nai Talim is associated with:
    a) Gandhi
    b) Tagore
    c) Froebel
    d) Rousseau
  2. Tagore’s education emphasized:
    a) Learning in nature
    b) Strict discipline
    c) Vocational training
    d) Industrial skills
  3. Kindergarten system was developed by:
    a) Rousseau
    b) Montessori
    c) Froebel
    d) Herbert
  4. Montessori method focuses on:
    a) Punishment
    b) Self-directed learning
    c) Rote learning
    d) Teacher-centered approach
  5. Rousseau believed in:
    a) Learning by doing
    b) Naturalism
    c) Idealism
    d) Pragmatism
  6. “Learning by Doing” is associated with:
    a) Dewey
    b) Gandhi
    c) Tagore
    d) Rousseau
  7. Who founded Visva-Bharati University?
    a) Gandhi
    b) Tagore
    c) Vivekananda
    d) Nehru
  8. Basic Education Scheme introduced in:
    a) 1937
    b) 1944
    c) 1917
    d) 1952
  9. Who emphasized “Child-centered education”?
    a) Froebel
    b) Pestalozzi
    c) Rousseau
    d) All of these
  10. Father of Modern Education in India:
    a) Gandhi
    b) Lord Macaulay
    c) Tagore
    d) Vivekananda
  11. Who advocated “education should follow the child”?
    a) Montessori
    b) Froebel
    c) Dewey
    d) Tagore
  12. Value education is best promoted through:
    a) Moral lessons alone
    b) Play & activities
    c) Rote memorizing
    d) Punishment
  13. Who said “Education is the manifestation of perfection already in man”?
    a) Gandhi
    b) Vivekananda
    c) Aurobindo
    d) Tagore
  14. According to Plato, education must develop:
    a) Head, heart, hands
    b) Moral, physical, intellectual
    c) Physical skills only
    d) Memory
  15. “Social Reconstructionism” is associated with:
    a) Dewey
    b) Paulo Freire
    c) Montessori
    d) Rousseau

 

ANSWER KEY

1-b, 2-b, 3-b, 4-b, 5-c, 6-b, 7-c, 8-a, 9-c, 10-c 11-a, 12-b, 13-b, 14-b, 15-b, 16-c, 17-b, 18-b, 19-b, 20-c
21-b, 22-b, 23-b, 24-c, 25-b, 26-c, 27-b, 28-b 29-a, 30-b, 31-a, 32-a, 33-b, 34-b, 35-b, 36-b, 37-b, 38-a, 39-b, 40-c 41-b, 42-c, 43-a, 44-b, 45-c, 46-c, 47-b, 48-b, 49-a, 50-c, 51-a, 52-b, 53-a, 54-a, 55-a 56-a, 57-a, 58-c, 59-b, 60-b, 61-a, 62-b, 63-a, 64-d, 65-b, 66-a, 67-b, 68-b, 69-b, 70-b


TOPIC-WISE (CTET / KVS / DSSSB)


 SECTION 1: CONSTITUTION, RTE ACT, EDUCATION & LAW

  1. Under RTE, the School Management Committee must consist of what minimum % of parents?
    a) 50%
    b) 65%
    c) 75%
    d) 60%
  2. Under Article 21A, the term “free” means:
    a) No tuition fees only
    b) No direct or indirect expenses
    c) Only books are free
    d) Free for BPL only
  3. Section 29 of RTE deals with:
    a) Curriculum & evaluation
    b) Recognition of schools
    c) Teacher appointment
    d) Physical punishment
  4. Reservation for disadvantaged groups in private unaided schools under RTE is:
    a) 10%
    b) 20%
    c) 25%
    d) 30%
  5. Which schedule of RTE mentions norms and standards of schools?
    a) First Schedule
    b) Second Schedule
    c) Third Schedule
    d) Fourth Schedule
  6. Article 45 was modified to provide:
    a) Education for 6–14 years
    b) ECCE for 0–6 years
    c) Vocational education
    d) Higher education
  7. The 86th Constitutional Amendment deals with:
    a) Higher education autonomy
    b) Right to Education
    c) Adult education
    d) School exam reforms
  8. Section 13 of RTE prohibits:
    a) School fees
    b) Screening procedures for admissions
    c) Mid-day meal restrictions
    d) Teacher training
  9. Article 30 ensures rights of:
    a) Teachers
    b) Minorities to establish institutions
    c) Women’s education
    d) Rural education
  10. RTE mandates a working day of:
    a) 4 hours
    b) 6 hours
    c) 5 hours
    d) 7 hours
  11. RTE prohibits detention until which class?
    a) Class 5
    b) Class 6
    c) Class 8
    d) Class 7
  12. “No child shall be denied admission for lack of age proof” belongs to:
    a) Section 8
    b) Section 14
    c) Section 23
    d) Section 19
  13. Education in Concurrent List means:
    a) Central govt controls only
    b) States only
    c) Both Centre and States
    d) Local bodies only
  14. The RTE Act defines a school as:
    a) Only govt schools
    b) Only aided schools
    c) All schools except minority institutions
    d) All schools
  15. RTE prohibits teachers from:
    a) Using ICT
    b) Taking private tuition
    c) Corporal punishment
    d) Both b & c
  16. Section 29(2)(h) mentions:
    a) No detention
    b) Continuous evaluation
    c) Teacher qualifications
    d) SMC structure
  17. “Neighbourhood school” radius for primary:
    a) 1 km
    b) 2 km
    c) 3 km
    d) 5 km
  18. “Special training for out-of-school children” belongs to:
    a) Section 3
    b) Section 4
    c) Section 7
    d) Section 12
  19. RTE requires one teacher for every:
    a) 30 children (primary)
    b) 40 children (upper primary)
    c) Both
    d) None
  20. Screening tests for admission violate:
    a) Section 8(b)
    b) Section 13(2)
    c) Section 19
    d) Section 23
  21. Article 350A ensures:
    a) Minority rights
    b) Mother-tongue instruction
    c) Higher education
    d) Adult literacy
  22. RTE Section 16 prohibits:
    a) Corporal punishment
    b) Screening
    c) Detention
    d) Expulsion
  23. RTE allows private schools to charge:
    a) Only uniform cost
    b) No charges
    c) Fees except for 25% quota
    d) Govt decides
  24. Article 51A(k) states:
    a) Duty of child to study
    b) Duty of parent to educate child
    c) Duty of school to enroll
    d) Duty of govt to provide food
  25. RTE minimum instructional hours per year (primary):
    a) 600
    b) 700
    c) 800
    d) 900
  26. Recognition of schools under RTE is in:
    a) Section 18
    b) Section 25
    c) Section 29
    d) Section 3
  27. Teachers’ duties under RTE include:
    a) Regularity and punctuality
    b) Completing curriculum
    c) Assessing learning
    d) All of these
  28. Which Article directs promotion of Hindi?
    a) 343
    b) 350B
    c) 351
    d) 255
  29. Which is NOT part of Directive Principles?
    a) Free education
    b) Equal pay
    c) Right to property
    d) Promotion of SC/ST
  30. Article 28 prohibits religious instruction in:
    a) Aided schools
    b) Govt educational institutions
    c) Private schools
    d) Minority schools

ANSWERS

1-c, 2-b, 3-a, 4-c, 5-b, 6-b, 7-b, 8-b, 9-b, 10-c, 11-c, 12-b, 13-c, 14-d, 15-d, 16-b, 17-a, 18-b, 19-c, 20-b, 21-b, 22-c, 23-c, 24-b, 25-c, 26-a, 27-d, 28-c, 29-c, 30-b

SECTION 2: NEP 2020

  1. NEP 2020 recommends medium of instruction up to grade 5 as:
    a) English
    b) Hindi
    c) Mother tongue
    d) Both a & b
  2. NEP 2020 replaces 10+2 with:
    a) 6+3+3
    b) 5+3+3+4
    c) 8+4
    d) 7+3+3
  3. Foundational Stage covers ages:
    a) 3-8
    b) 3-6
    c) 6-10
    d) 8-11
  4. NEP 2020 aims for _____ literacy & numeracy by Grade 3.
    a) Foundational
    b) Advanced
    c) Critical
    d) Content-based
  5. PARAKH stands for:
    a) National evaluation centre
    b) Accreditation body
    c) Teacher training
    d) Vocational assessment
  6. Academic Bank of Credits is for:
    a) School curriculum
    b) Higher education
    c) Vocational courses only
    d) Teacher evaluation
  7. NCC, NSS and sports are integrated under:
    a) Bagless days
    b) Holistic curriculum
    c) Vocational education
    d) Value education
  8. NEP 2020 recommends assessment shift from:
    a) Memory → application
    b) Written → oral
    c) Grades → marks
    d) None
  9. School exams in NEP occur in classes:
    a) 5, 8
    b) 3, 5, 8
    c) 2, 4, 8
    d) 4, 7, 10
  10. NTA under NEP conducts:
    a) Entrance exams
    b) Board exams
    c) CTET
    d) Teacher training
  11. 50% of learners will get vocational exposure by:
    a) 2024
    b) 2025
    c) 2030
    d) 2035
  12. National Curriculum Framework (NCF) after NEP is developed by:
    a) NCERT
    b) UGC
    c) NCTE
    d) NAAC
  13. “Bagless days” aim at:
    a) Project-based learning
    b) Reducing syllabus
    c) ICT skills
    d) Parental involvement
  14. School complexes aim to:
    a) Shut schools
    b) Share resources
    c) Privatize
    d) Standardize fees
  15. NEP proposes teacher recruitment based on:
    a) TET + competency
    b) Graduation marks
    c) Interview only
    d) School selection
  16. NEP promotes:
    a) Flexibility in subjects
    b) Only science
    c) Rote learning
    d) Single-language education
  17. NEP suggests board exams become:
    a) Yearly high-stakes
    b) Low-stakes & competency-based
    c) Eliminated
    d) Optional
  18. GER target for higher education by 2035:
    a) 30%
    b) 50%
    c) 60%
    d) 75%
  19. Multidisciplinary institutions must have minimum student strength of:
    a) 2000
    b) 3000
    c) 4000
    d) 5000
  20. Mother tongue instruction is based on principle of:
    a) Constructivism
    b) Behaviorism
    c) Idealism
    d) Realism
  21. NEP suggests digital repository through:
    a) DIKSHA
    b) PM e-Vidya
    c) NROER
    d) All
  22. National Professional Standards for Teachers (NPST) developed by:
    a) NCTE
    b) NCERT
    c) UGC
    d) CBSE
  23. Four-year integrated B.Ed. aims at:
    a) Specialized focused training
    b) Quick certification
    c) Diploma replacement
    d) None
  24. NEP stresses on:
    a) Rote memorization
    b) Competency-based education
    c) Same syllabus for all
    d) Hard segregation of streams
  25. HEI clusters mean:
    a) Merging schools
    b) Merging colleges for resource-sharing
    c) Student clustering
    d) Teacher unions
  26. NEP proposes multidisciplinary research through:
    a) NRF
    b) UGC
    c) NCERT
    d) AICTE
  27. ECCE curriculum is guided by:
    a) Anganwadi workers
    b) NCF-FS
    c) Teachers only
    d) Nurses
  28. FLN is achieved through:
    a) NIPUN Bharat
    b) Sarva Shiksha
    c) NLM
    d) Mid-day meal
  29. NEP discourages coaching culture by:
    a) Competency-based exams
    b) Reducing syllabus
    c) Removing textbooks
    d) Increasing homework
  30. NEP recommends:
    a) One exam at year-end
    b) Formative + summative assessment
    c) Only oral assessment
    d) Only written exams

ANSWERS — SECTION 2

31-c, 32-b, 33-a, 34-a, 35-a, 36-b, 37-b, 38-a, 39-b, 40-a, 41-c, 42-a, 43-a, 44-b, 45-a, 46-a, 47-b, 48-b, 49-c, 50-a, 51-d, 52-a, 53-a, 54-b, 55-b, 56-a, 57-b, 58-a, 59-a, 60-b


SECTION 3 — EDUCATION COMMISSIONS & POLICIES

  1. Kothari Commission emphasized that education should be viewed as a:
    a) Private sector activity
    b) National investment
    c) State burden
    d) Social liability
  2. The term “Common School System” was introduced by:
    a) Mudaliar Commission
    b) Kothari Commission
    c) Radhakrishnan Commission
    d) Hartog Committee
  3. “Minimum levels of learning (MLL)” were introduced under:
    a) Operation Blackboard
    b) NPE 1986
    c) SSA
    d) NCERT
  4. Kothari Commission proposed expenditure on education be _____ of GDP.
    a) 2%
    b) 4%
    c) 6%
    d) 10%
  5. Which commission recommended diversified courses at secondary level?
    a) Mudaliar
    b) Kothari
    c) Radhakrishnan
    d) Hunter
  6. Mudaliar Commission’s objective was:
    a) Reform higher education
    b) Vocational reforms
    c) Improve secondary education
    d) Teacher training
  7. Radhakrishnan Commission recommended:
    a) UGC establishment
    b) CBSE creation
    c) Mid-day meals
    d) SSA
  8. Hartog Committee discouraged:
    a) Mass literacy
    b) Universal enrollment
    c) Rapid expansion without quality
    d) Vocational training
  9. Which policy introduced Operation Blackboard?
    a) NPE 1968
    b) NPE 1986
    c) NPE 1992
    d) NEP 2020
  10. Sargent Report proposed universal education by:
    a) 1950
    b) 1960
    c) 1970
    d) 1985
  11. Hunter Commission stressed on:
    a) Women education
    b) Secondary schools
    c) Teacher training
    d) University autonomy
  12. Sadler Commission focused on:
    a) Intermediary stage between school & university
    b) ECCE
    c) Vocationalization
    d) Teacher accountability
  13. “Learning without burden” committee was led by:
    a) Yashpal
    b) Kothari
    c) Radhakrishnan
    d) Mudaliar
  14. NPE 1986 emphasized:
    a) Child-centered education
    b) Teacher-centered system
    c) Rote learning
    d) External examinations
  15. NPE 1968 emphasized:
    a) ICT in classrooms
    b) Three-language formula
    c) Coaching reforms
    d) Continuous evaluation
  16. Kothari Commission’s motto:
    a) Learn by doing
    b) Education for all
    c) Education and national development
    d) Education as freedom
  17. POA 1992 stands for:
    a) Programme of Action
    b) Policy of Accountability
    c) Plan of Assessment
    d) Policy of Accreditation
  18. NPE 1986 emphasized empowering:
    a) Teachers only
    b) Women and weaker sections
    c) Administrators
    d) Private schools
  19. Operation Blackboard aimed to:
    a) Improve school infrastructure
    b) Ensure no exam up to class 5
    c) Train teachers
    d) Introduce ICT
  20. Which policy focused on national identity?
    a) 1968
    b) 1986
    c) 1992
    d) 2020
  21. CABE stands for:
    a) Central Advisory Board on Education
    b) Commission for Academic Board Evaluation
    c) Council for Accreditation in Basic Education
    d) None
  22. Which committee introduced Basic Education?
    a) Yashpal
    b) Wardha Committee
    c) Sargent
    d) Radhakrishnan
  23. NPE 1986 recommended the principle of:
    a) Social and national integration
    b) Profit-oriented education
    c) Coaching dependency
    d) Fixed curriculum
  24. Lok Jumbish Project was implemented in:
    a) Uttar Pradesh
    b) Bihar
    c) Rajasthan
    d) Maharashtra
  25. DPEP was launched for:
    a) Higher education reforms
    b) District-level primary education improvement
    c) ICT in classrooms
    d) Teacher recruitment
  26. NPE 1986 emphasized ECCE because:
    a) Parents prefer child care
    b) Early childhood is crucial for learning
    c) Schools lacked teachers
    d) Primary curriculum was heavy
  27. Kothari Commission recommended which principle?
    a) Social cohesion
    b) Equality through education
    c) Value-free education
    d) Hard segregation of streams
  28. “Learning to learn” concept was highlighted by:
    a) NPE 1986
    b) NEP 2020
    c) Kothari Commission
    d) SSA
  29. A major criticism of NPE 1968 was:
    a) Too expensive
    b) Faulty implementation
    c) Lack of curriculum
    d) Too much ICT
  30. NPE 1986 introduced the concept of:
    a) Minimum learning levels
    b) Social reform through exams
    c) Dual education system
    d) Teacher-less classrooms

ANSWER KEY

61-b, 62-b, 63-b, 64-c, 65-a, 66-c, 67-a, 68-c, 69-b, 70-b, 71-c, 72-a, 73-a, 74-a, 75-b, 76-c, 77-a, 78-b, 79-a, 80-a, 81-a, 82-b, 83-a, 84-c, 85-b, 86-b, 87-b, 88-c, 89-b, 90-a


SECTION 4 — EDUCATIONAL SCHEMES & PROGRAMMES

  1. Mid-Day Meal Scheme became a cooked meal scheme in:
    a) 1992
    b) 1995
    c) 2001
    d) 2010
  2. The main objective of Samagra Shiksha is:
    a) Teacher salary reform
    b) Integrated school education from pre-primary to XII
    c) Vocationalization of education only
    d) E-learning only
  3. SSA was launched in:
    a) 2000-01
    b) 1998
    c) 2004
    d) 2008
  4. RMSA focuses on:
    a) Higher education
    b) Secondary education
    c) Primary education
    d) Teacher training
  5. NIPUN Bharat aims to achieve FLN by:
    a) Grade 1
    b) Grade 2
    c) Grade 3
    d) Grade 5
  6. NPEGEL focuses on:
    a) Gifted children
    b) Girls' education
    c) ICT integration
    d) Coaching reform
  7. KGBV schools are established for:
    a) Boys
    b) Gifted learners
    c) SC/ST/OBC minority girls
    d) Teachers’ children
  8. Shagun Portal is meant for:
    a) Online teaching
    b) Monitoring education quality
    c) Teachers’ salary
    d) School enrollment
  9. PM SHRI schools emphasize:
    a) Only infrastructure
    b) NEP-aligned holistic learning
    c) Teacher salary
    d) Competitive exams
  10. Tithi Bhojan scheme relates to:
    a) Vocational education
    b) Community participation in mid-day meal
    c) ICT training
    d) Scholarship
  11. TEACH Programme focuses on:
    a) Teacher training
    b) Inclusive education
    c) ICT modernization
    d) Vocationalization
  12. Unnat Bharat Abhiyan is implemented by:
    a) NCERT
    b) IITs and HEIs
    c) KVS
    d) CBSE
  13. SHALA SIDHI programme evaluates:
    a) Sports performance
    b) School performance
    c) Teacher performance only
    d) Textbook quality
  14. NLM (National Literacy Mission) targets:
    a) Adult literacy
    b) Girls’ education
    c) Teacher training
    d) ICT literacy
  15. NROER is a repository for:
    a) Open educational resources
    b) Teacher salary
    c) Student attendance
    d) Inspection
  16. Eklavya Model Residential Schools are for:
    a) OBC
    b) ST students
    c) Minorities
    d) Women
  17. Mid-Day Meal reduces:
    a) Learning
    b) Enrollment
    c) Dropout
    d) Digital gap
  18. Shaala Darpan portal is used by:
    a) Navodaya Vidyalayas
    b) Kendriya Vidyalayas
    c) Army Schools
    d) All private schools
  19. “Vidyanjali” promotes:
    a) Volunteering in schools
    b) ICT labs
    c) Sports education
    d) Library automation
  20. “Khelo India” includes:
    a) Sports talent development
    b) Teacher recruitment
    c) SSC reforms
    d) Coaching institutes
  21. Samagra Shiksha introduced:
    a) Vocational integration
    b) Digital classrooms
    c) Sports enhancement
    d) All of these
  22. PM eVIDYA includes:
    a) SWAYAM
    b) DIKSHA
    c) TV channels
    d) All
  23. Poshan Abhiyaan improves:
    a) School buildings
    b) Child nutrition
    c) Teacher training
    d) RTE norms
  24. AYUSHMAN BHARAT School Health Program focuses on:
    a) School insurance
    b) Health & wellness ambassadors
    c) Free textbooks
    d) School cleanliness only
  25. PRASHAST App is for:
    a) Disability screening
    b) Teacher evaluation
    c) ICT learning
    d) Sports monitoring

ANSWER KEY

91-c, 92-b, 93-a, 94-b, 95-c, 96-b, 97-c, 98-b, 99-b, 100-b, 101-a, 102-b, 103-b, 104-a, 105-a, 106-b, 107-c, 108-b, 109-a, 110-a, 111-d, 112-d, 113-b, 114-b, 115-a


SECTION 5 — EDUCATIONAL INSTITUTIONS & BODIES

  1. NCERT functions primarily as:
    a) Examination body
    b) Curriculum & research body
    c) Regulatory body
    d) Teacher recruitment body
  2. NCTE regulates:
    a) Higher education
    b) Teacher education
    c) Vocational education
    d) Technical education
  3. UGC is responsible for:
    a) School textbooks
    b) University coordination & funding
    c) Teacher recruitment
    d) ICT training
  4. AICTE regulates:
    a) Engineering & technical institutions
    b) Medical colleges
    c) Law institutions
    d) Arts colleges
  5. NAAC assesses:
    a) Only schools
    b) Higher education institutions
    c) Coaching centers
    d) Private tuitions
  6. CBSE was reorganized in:
    a) 1962
    b) 1952
    c) 1972
    d) 1986
  7. NIOS works under:
    a) NCERT
    b) Ministry of Education
    c) AICTE
    d) UGC
  8. IGNOU offers primarily:
    a) Regular degrees
    b) Distance & open learning programs
    c) Technical diplomas
    d) Coaching courses
  9. NCERT was set up in:
    a) 1955
    b) 1961
    c) 1967
    d) 1970
  10. “NIEPA” works for:
    a) ICT
    b) Educational planning & administration
    c) Technical training
    d) Teacher recruitment
  11. The regulatory body for teacher training institutions:
    a) CBSE
    b) NCTE
    c) NCERT
    d) NAAC
  12. UGC was established under which act?
    a) 1952 Act
    b) 1956 Act
    c) 1962 Act
    d) 1972 Act
  13. NCERT prepares:
    a) Teaching licenses
    b) National curriculum & textbooks
    c) Coaching materials
    d) University exams
  14. NCTE sets norms for:
    a) D.El.Ed, B.Ed programs
    b) Medical degrees
    c) Engineering courses
    d) Law education
  15. AIU stands for:
    a) Association of Indian Universities
    b) All India Union
    c) Academic Institutional Union
    d) Accreditation of Indian Universities
  16. NIOS provides:
    a) On-demand exams
    b) Open schooling
    c) Vocational courses
    d) All
  17. NCVT is concerned with:
    a) Vocational training
    b) University exams
    c) Teacher training
    d) Primary education
  18. CBSE follows which pedagogy?
    a) Competency-based
    b) Rote-based
    c) Exam-based
    d) Lecture-based
  19. NCTE minimum qualification for primary teachers is based on:
    a) RTE Act
    b) NCF 2005
    c) NPE 1986
    d) SSA
  20. NAAC grading uses:
    a) A, B, C system
    b) Four-tier grading
    c) GPA-based accreditation
    d) Numeric score only
  21. NCF 2005 was developed by:
    a) UGC
    b) NCTE
    c) NCERT
    d) CBSE
  22. HRD Ministry was renamed as Ministry of Education in:
    a) 2014
    b) 2019
    c) 2020
    d) 2018
  23. Which body accredits teacher education institutions?
    a) NAAC
    b) NCTE
    c) NCERT
    d) SCERT
  24. SCERT functions at:
    a) National level
    b) State level
    c) District level
    d) Block level
  25. DIET functions at:
    a) Block level
    b) District level
    c) State level
    d) National level
  26. UGC NET is conducted for:
    a) Teacher recruitment
    b) Eligibility for Assistant Professor & JRF
    c) Board exams
    d) School-level teachers
  27. COA regulates:
    a) Architecture education
    b) ICT
    c) Teacher training
    d) Vocational courses
  28. BCI regulates:
    a) Teaching
    b) Engineering
    c) Legal education
    d) Commerce
  29. PCI regulates:
    a) Pharmacy education
    b) Medical training
    c) Teaching diploma
    d) ICT labs
  30. ICSSR mainly supports:
    a) Science research
    b) Social science research
    c) Engineering research
    d) Legal research

ANSWER KEY

116-b, 117-b, 118-b, 119-a, 120-b, 121-a, 122-b, 123-b, 124-b, 125-b, 126-b, 127-b, 128-b, 129-a, 130-a, 131-d, 132-a, 133-a, 134-a, 135-c, 136-c, 137-c, 138-a, 139-b, 140-b, 141-b, 142-a, 143-c, 144-a, 145-b


SECTION 6 — EDUCATIONAL THINKERS

 

  1. Gandhi’s Basic Education emphasizes:
    a) Literacy only
    b) Handicraft-based learning
    c) Exam-centred learning
    d) ICT
  2. Tagore believed education should be:
    a) Strict
    b) Book-centered
    c) Nature-centered
    d) Exam-focused
  3. Montessori’s method emphasizes:
    a) Freedom within limits
    b) Rote learning
    c) Rewards & punishments
    d) Teacher dominance
  4. Rousseau advocated:
    a) Naturalism
    b) Idealism
    c) Pragmatism
    d) Behaviorism
  5. Froebel is known as father of:
    a) Kindergarten
    b) Play-way
    c) Montessori
    d) Constructivism
  6. Dewey emphasized:
    a) Learning by doing
    b) Rote learning
    c) Fixed curriculum
    d) Repetition
  7. Pestalozzi emphasized:
    a) Head, heart, hands
    b) Only memorization
    c) Sports education
    d) Industrial education
  8. Aurobindo emphasized:
    a) Five-fold education
    b) Materialistic education
    c) Mechanical training
    d) Scientific positivism
  9. Vivekananda believed education is:
    a) Bookish knowledge
    b) Manifestation of perfection
    c) Mechanical
    d) Competitive
  10. “Child is the father of man” is by:
    a) Wordsworth
    b) Rousseau
    c) Dewey
    d) Froebel
  11. Paulo Freire is associated with:
    a) Banking model criticism
    b) Behaviorism
    c) Structuralism
    d) Pragmatism
  12. “Learning through self-activity” is linked with:
    a) Montessori
    b) Froebel
    c) Tagore
    d) Dewey
  13. “Education should follow the child” is by:
    a) Montessori
    b) Gandhi
    c) Pestalozzi
    d) Humboldt
  14. In Montessori schools, the teacher acts as:
    a) Leader
    b) Dictator
    c) Facilitator
    d) Controller
  15. Rousseau’s famous book is:
    a) Emile
    b) Discovery
    c) My Experiments
    d) Learning the Treasure Within
  16. “Social reconstructionism” belongs to:
    a) Freire
    b) Dewey
    c) Montessori
    d) Tagore
  17. Gandhi’s Nai Talim focuses on:
    a) Craft-centered education
    b) ICT learning
    c) Heavy curriculum
    d) Exams
  18. Tagore founded:
    a) Visva Bharati
    b) Shantiniketan
    c) Both
    d) None
  19. The concept of “Play-way method” developed by:
    a) Montessori
    b) Huey
    c) Froebel
    d) Dewey
  20. Dewey believed school is:
    a) Miniature society
    b) Exam center
    c) Religious center
    d) Industrial center
  21. Aurobindo’s fivefold education includes:
    a) Physical, vital, mental, psychic, spiritual
    b) Head, heart, hand
    c) Social, moral, emotional
    d) None
  22. Educational philosophy of Gandhi is:
    a) Idealism
    b) Naturalism
    c) Pragmatism
    d) Spiritual humanism
  23. Rousseau criticized:
    a) Nature
    b) Society
    c) Discipline
    d) Reason
  24. Montessori materials are:
    a) Teacher-controlled
    b) Self-corrective
    c) Digital
    d) Playful only
  25. Pestalozzi emphasized teaching through:
    a) Words
    b) Things
    c) Memory
    d) Punishment
  26. Herbert’s five-step model includes all EXCEPT:
    a) Preparation
    b) Presentation
    c) Application
    d) Punishment
  27. The term “banking concept of education” is used by:
    a) Freire
    b) Dewey
    c) Tagore
    d) Gandhi
  28. “Education as growth” is associated with:
    a) Dewey
    b) Rousseau
    c) Gandhi
    d) Tagore
  29. Dualism in education was criticized by:
    a) Dewey
    b) Tagore
    c) Froebel
    d) Freire
  30. Gandhi believed craft leads to:
    a) Play
    b) Equality
    c) Moral development
    d) Punishment

ANSWER KEY

146-b, 147-c, 148-a, 149-a, 150-a, 151-a, 152-a, 153-a, 154-b, 155-a, 156-a, 157-b, 158-a, 159-c, 160-a, 161-a, 162-a, 163-c, 164-c, 165-a, 166-a, 167-d, 168-b, 169-b, 170-b, 171-d, 172-a, 173-a, 174-a, 175-c


 

SECTION 7 — CHILD DEVELOPMENT, LEARNING THEORIES & PEDAGOGY

  1. Piaget’s theory is based on:
    a) Social learning
    b) Cognitive constructivism
    c) Behaviorism
    d) Maturationism
  2. Vygotsky’s key concept is:
    a) Schema
    b) Zone of Proximal Development
    c) Reinforcement
    d) Assimilation
  3. “Scaffolding” was proposed by:
    a) Bruner
    b) Chomsky
    c) Thorndike
    d) Watson
  4. Kohlberg’s highest level is:
    a) Pre-conventional
    b) Conventional
    c) Post-conventional
    d) Social-conventional
  5. Skinner believed learning occurs through:
    a) Trial and error
    b) Reinforcement
    c) Discovery learning
    d) Insight
  6. Bandura’s theory emphasizes:
    a) Conditioning
    b) Observation & imitation
    c) Punishment
    d) Cognition only
  7. Bruner emphasized learning through:
    a) Enactive, iconic, symbolic modes
    b) Stimulus-response bond
    c) Trial & error
    d) Imitation
  8. Thorndike proposed:
    a) Law of effect
    b) Law of reasoning
    c) Law of insight
    d) Law of imitation
  9. Gardner proposed:
    a) Multiple intelligence theory
    b) Social learning
    c) Reinforcement theory
    d) Behavioral theory
  10. Erikson’s stages focus on:
    a) Moral development
    b) Psychosocial development
    c) Emotional development only
    d) Biological changes
  11. A child performing better with help is in:
    a) Insight zone
    b) ZPD
    c) Independent level
    d) Reaction level
  12. “Discovery learning” is advocated by:
    a) Bruner
    b) Piaget
    c) Pavlov
    d) Watson
  13. Pavlov’s learning theory is:
    a) Classical conditioning
    b) Operant conditioning
    c) Observation
    d) Cognitive
  14. Insightful learning is by:
    a) Kohler
    b) Piaget
    c) Bruner
    d) Tolman
  15. The best description of a constructivist classroom:
    a) Teacher-dominated
    b) Students generate knowledge
    c) Only teacher talks
    d) Memorization
  16. Assessment FOR learning means:
    a) Summative tests
    b) Feedback to improve learning
    c) Final exams
    d) Standardized tests
  17. Formative assessment happens:
    a) After the year ends
    b) Continuously
    c) Only during exams
    d) Only in projects
  18. Dysgraphia affects:
    a) Reading
    b) Writing
    c) Listening
    d) Speaking
  19. Dyscalculia affects:
    a) Numbers
    b) Writing
    c) Memory
    d) Vision
  20. Metacognition means:
    a) Learning facts
    b) Thinking about thinking
    c) Rote memory
    d) Emotional reaction
  21. A child who can classify items is in Piaget’s:
    a) Pre-operational
    b) Concrete operational
    c) Sensory motor
    d) Formal operational
  22. Adolescents show:
    a) Egocentrism
    b) Height growth
    c) Identity formation
    d) All
  23. Teaching-learning process must consider:
    a) Cultural context
    b) Social background
    c) Prior knowledge
    d) All
  24. Remedial teaching focuses on:
    a) Gifted children
    b) Slow learners
    c) High achievers
    d) Teachers
  25. Inclusive education focuses on:
    a) Only disabled
    b) All learners with diversity
    c) Only SC/ST
    d) Only gifted

ANSWER KEY

176-b, 177-b, 178-a, 179-c, 180-b, 181-b, 182-a, 183-a, 184-a, 185-b, 186-b, 187-a, 188-a, 189-a, 190-b, 191-b, 192-b, 193-b, 194-a, 195-b, 196-b, 197-d, 198-d, 199-b, 200-b


 

PYQ Like MCQs

1. In CTET & KVS exams a frequently asked concept: NCF 2005 emphasizes—

a) Uniform learning pace
b) Constructivist learning
c) Teacher-led classes
d) Rote memorization
Answer: b

2. DSSSB often tests Kothari Commission. It recommended—

a) Two-language formula
b) 6% of GDP for education
c) National Talent Search
d) No-detention policy
Answer: b

3. CTET asks repeatedly: NPE 1986 gives special emphasis on—

a) ICT
b) ECCE
c) Robotics
d) CWSN exclusion
Answer: b

4. EMRS exam often asks: Samagra Shiksha integrates—

a) Only SSA
b) Only RMSA
c) Both SSA + RMSA + TE
d) Only Vocational Training
Answer: c

5. NIOS is known for—

a) On-demand exams
b) Teacher training
c) University-level exams
d) State textbooks
Answer: a

6. CTET PYQ theme: RTE Act Section 29 deals with—

a) Teacher recruitment
b) Curriculum and evaluation
c) School management committees
d) Infrastructure
Answer: b

7. KVS frequently asks: Montessori method stresses—

a) Rewards
b) Punishment
c) Self-directed activity
d) State regulations
Answer: c

8. EMRS asks Bloom's taxonomy: Highest cognitive level?

a) Understanding
b) Applying
c) Analyzing
d) Creating
Answer: d

9. DSSSB asks: “Learning without burden” report is by—

a) Kothari
b) Yashpal Committee
c) Radhakrishnan
d) Mudaliar
Answer: b

10. CTET common: Vygotsky emphasized—

a) Maturation
b) Culture & Social interaction
c) Reinforcement
d) Trial & error
Answer: b

Policies & Commissions (PYQ-Style)

11. NPE 1968 emphasized—

a) Child-centered teaching
b) Three-language formula
c) Continuous evaluation
d) ICT-based curriculum
Answer: b

12. KVS asks: Kothari Commission’s motto—

a) Learning by doing
b) Education for national development
c) Education for pleasure
d) Open learning
Answer: b

13. Mudaliar Commission dealt with—

a) Primary education
b) Secondary education
c) Higher education
d) Adult education
Answer: b

14. Radhakrishnan Commission recommended creation of—

a) NCTE
b) UGC
c) CBSE
d) NCERT
Answer: b

15. RTE mandates pupil–teacher ratio at primary level as—

a) 1:20
b) 1:30
c) 1:40
d) 1:60
Answer: b

Educational Schemes (PYQ pattern)

16. NIPUN Bharat focuses on—

a) Sports
b) Foundational literacy & numeracy
c) STEM
d) Higher education
Answer: b

17. Mid-Day Meal aims mainly to—

a) Increase board results
b) Reduce drop-out
c) Improve ICT
d) Teacher training
Answer: b

18. KGBV schools primarily target—

a) Boys
b) Gifted learners
c) Girls from marginalized groups
d) Private school students
Answer: c

19. PM SHRI Schools align with—

a) NPE 1968
b) NEP 2020
c) NCF 2005
d) RTE 2009
Answer: b

20. RMSA focuses on—

a) Primary education
b) Secondary education
c) Higher education
d) ECCE
Answer: b

Institutions (PYQ-style)

21. NAAC accredits—

a) Schools
b) Higher education institutions
c) Vocational institutes
d) Teacher training colleges only
Answer: b

22. NCTE regulates—

a) School curriculum
b) Teacher education programs
c) Mid-day meal
d) ICT infrastructure
Answer: b

23. NCERT is responsible for—

a) School exams
b) National curriculum framework
c) College syllabi
d) Teacher postings
Answer: b

24. SCERT operates at—

a) Block level
b) District level
c) State level
d) National level
Answer: c

25. DIET is responsible for—

a) Teacher recruitment
b) District-level teacher training
c) Curriculum drafting
d) University teaching
Answer: b

Thinkers (PYQ-like)

26. Tagore stressed education in—

a) Closed classrooms
b) Nature
c) Memorization
d) Competitions
Answer: b

27. Dewey believed school is—

a) A religious center
b) A miniature society
c) A competition zone
d) A testing ground
Answer: b

28. Montessori materials are—

a) Teacher-controlled
b) Self-corrective
c) Technological
d) Punishment-oriented
Answer: b

29. Gandhi’s Nai Talim is—

a) Book-centered
b) Craft-centered
c) Exam-heavy
d) Lecture-based
Answer: b

30. Froebel introduced—

a) Kindergarten
b) ICT
c) Behaviorism
d) Classical conditioning
Answer: a

Pedagogy / Psychology (PYQ-style)

31. Piaget’s formal operational stage begins at—

a) 2
b) 7
c) 11
d) 15
Answer: c

32. Vygotsky’s ZPD involves—

a) Reinforcement
b) Learning with support
c) Self-directed study
d) Punishment
Answer: b

33. Thorndike’s law of effect states learning is strengthened by—

a) Punishment
b) Reinforcement
c) Competition
d) Maturation
Answer: b

34. Pavlov showed—

a) Observational learning
b) Insight learning
c) Classical conditioning
d) Cognitive mapping
Answer: c

35. Bandura emphasizes—

a) Conditioning
b) Discovery learning
c) Observation & imitation
d) Rote learning
Answer: c

Assessment & Evaluation

36. Formative assessment is—

a) At end of course
b) Continuous & diagnostic
c) Only oral
d) Only written
Answer: b

37. Summative assessment is mainly for—

a) Feedback
b) Grading & certification
c) Suggestive improvement
d) Group projects
Answer: b

38. Criterion-referenced tests measure—

a) Group comparison
b) Learner vs. standard
c) Intelligence
d) Aptitude
Answer: b

39. Dyscalculia affects—

a) Writing
b) Reading
c) Numerical ability
d) Speaking
Answer: c

40. CCE stands for—

a) Continuous & comprehensive evaluation
b) Continuous classroom education
c) Child-centered education
d) Creative curriculum evaluation
Answer: a

General Awareness (Education)

41. “No detention policy” existed till—

a) Class 3
b) Class 5
c) Class 8
d) Class 10
Answer: c
now can detained in class 5 and 8

42. Right to Education is under—

a) Article 14
b) Article 21A
c) Article 27
d) Article 32
Answer: b

43. ECCE refers to—

a) Early childcare & education
b) Elementary curriculum
c) Environmental education
d) Ethical education
Answer: a

44. FLN stands for—

a) Foundational learning & numeracy
b) Foreign language norms
c) Functional literacy & numbers
d) Fair learning norms
Answer: a

45. Shala Darpan is a portal for—

a) University teachers
b) Kendriya Vidyalayas
c) NVS
d) CBSE
Answer: b

Advanced-Level (Like DSSSB/EMRS)

46. “Education as a social process” is by—

a) Dewey
b) Montessori
c) Rousseau
d) Thorndike
Answer: a

47. Multiple Intelligence includes—

a) Only verbal
b) Only logical
c) Eight or more domains
d) Only academic
Answer: c

48. Constructivism rejects—

a) Student participation
b) Prior knowledge
c) Passive learning
d) Group learning
Answer: c

49. ICT competency is emphasized strongly in—

a) NPE 1986
b) RTE Act
c) NEP 2020
d) Kothari Commission
Answer: c

50. SCERT prepares—

a) National books
b) State textbooks
c) Higher education regulation
d) Teacher salary norms
Answer: b

Educational Policies & Commissions

51. National Policy on Education (1986) emphasized—

a) Only higher education
b) Child-centered and activity-based learning
c) Competitive exams
d) Rote memorization
Answer: b

52. Which commission proposed the 10+2+3 structure?

a) Mudaliar Commission
b) Kothari Commission
c) Radhakrishnan Commission
d) Sargent Plan
Answer: b

53. POA 1992 was introduced to—

a) Revise NEP 1968
b) Implement the recommendations of NPE 1986
c) Modify SSA
d) Draft RTE
Answer: b

54. NEP 2020 recommends Board exams to be—

a) Memorization-based
b) Low stakes and competency-based
c) Conducted monthly
d) Removed entirely
Answer: b

55. Three-language formula is recommended in—

a) NEP 2020
b) NPE 1968
c) NCF 2005
d) None
Answer: b

56. Sargent Report (1944) aimed to achieve universal schooling in—

a) 10 years
b) 20 years
c) 40 years
d) 60 years
Answer: c

57. NPE 1986 declared education as—

a) A fundamental right
b) A unique investment
c) State responsibility only
d) Market activity
Answer: b

58. RTE Act prohibits—

a) Exams
b) Corporal punishment
c) CCE
d) Teacher recruitment
Answer: b

59. Kothari Commission introduced the idea of—

a) DIETs
b) Common School System
c) CCE
d) Continuous teacher exams
Answer: b

60. NEP 2020 proposes teacher recruitment based on—

a) Oral interview
b) TET + Demonstration + Qualifications
c) Only degree
d) Only interview
Answer: b

61. Mudaliar Commission recommended—

a) More ICT
b) Purposeful secondary education
c) Technical colleges
d) Free higher education
Answer: b

62. NEP 2020 splits school education into—

a) 8+2
b) 5+3+3+4
c) 6+3+3+2
d) 4+4+4
Answer: b

63. ECCE under NEP 2020 is provided through—

a) Anganwadis
b) Coaching centers
c) KVS only
d) Class 3 only
Answer: a

64. The NCF 2005 curriculum is based on—

a) Nationalism
b) Constructivist approach
c) Behaviorism
d) Traditionalism
Answer: b

65. The Mid-Day Meal Scheme was made universal in—

a) 1995
b) 2001
c) 2013
d) 1990
Answer: b

 Educational Institutions

66. NCTE regulates which courses?

a) B.Ed., D.El.Ed.
b) MBBS
c) Engineering
d) Law
Answer: a

67. NCERT prepares—

a) School textbooks & NCF
b) Competitive exam papers
c) B.Ed. curriculum
d) All university syllabi
Answer: a

68. CBSE’s competency-based education promotes—

a) Subjective recall
b) Application of concepts
c) Only definitions
d) Long answers
Answer: b

69. UGC NET is primarily for—

a) PGT recruitment
b) JRF + Assistant Professor eligibility
c) Admission to B.Ed
d) School teachers
Answer: b

70. DIETs support—

a) District-level training
b) International programs
c) University-level courses
d) Private school audits
Answer: a

71. AICTE governs—

a) Engineering & technical education
b) CBSE schools
c) KVS
d) Medical colleges
Answer: a

72. NIOS offers—

a) Open schooling & on-demand exams
b) Regular schooling only
c) Competitive exams
d) Teacher recruitment
Answer: a

73. NAAC provides—

a) Accreditation to HEIs
b) School exams
c) Scholarships
d) Class 10 curriculum
Answer: a

74. SCERT works at—

a) Village level
b) State level
c) University level
d) National level
Answer: b

75. KRPs trained under Samagra Shiksha are—

a) Key Resource Persons
b) Karnataka Teachers
c) Kindergarten teachers
d) Knowledge Review Panel
Answer: a

 

 Thinkers & Philosophies

76. Dewey’s philosophy belongs to—

a) Naturalism
b) Idealism
c) Pragmatism
d) Realism
Answer: c

77. Montessori believed children learn best through—

a) Direct instruction
b) Self-directed learning
c) Punishment
d) Memory work
Answer: b

78. Froebel is known for—

a) Kindergarten system
b) Discovery learning
c) Logical reasoning
d) Social reconstruction
Answer: a

79. Rousseau believed—

a) Child is naturally good
b) Child is evil
c) Child needs strict control
d) Child learns by punishments
Answer: a

80. Tagore criticized—

a) Nature
b) Bookish & mechanical schooling
c) Learning through arts
d) Internationalism
Answer: b

81. Gandhi’s Basic Education focused on—

a) Rich knowledge
b) Handicraft-based learning
c) Competition
d) ICT
Answer: b

82. Paulo Freire criticized—

a) Teaching by play
b) Banking model of education
c) Constructivism
d) Multiple intelligence
Answer: b

83. Aurobindo emphasized—

a) Fivefold education
b) Behaviorism
c) Punishment
d) Logical reasoning only
Answer: a

84. Pestalozzi is known for—

a) Head, Heart, Hand
b) Drill method
c) Idealsim
d) Practicalism
Answer: a

85. “Learning by doing” is associated with—

a) Dewey
b) Watson
c) Pavlov
d) Montessori
Answer: a

86. “Child is the father of man” was given by—

a) Wordsworth
b) Rousseau
c) Dewey
d) Pestalozzi
Answer: a

87. Rousseau’s famous work is—

a) Emile
b) Discovery of India
c) School & Society
d) Pedagogy of Oppressed
Answer: a

88. Freire emphasizes—

a) Dialogue & critical awareness
b) Punishment
c) Obedience
d) Competition
Answer: a

 Pedagogy, Child Development, Psychology

89. Piaget’s formal operational stage includes—

a) Egocentric speech
b) Abstract thinking
c) Object permanence
d) Classification
Answer: b

90. Vygotsky emphasized that learning is—

a) Independent
b) Socially constructed
c) Biological
d) Automatic
Answer: b

91. The purpose of scaffolding is—

a) Limit help
b) Provide temporary support
c) Increase exams
d) Replace teaching
Answer: b

92. Operant conditioning is given by—

a) Pavlov
b) Skinner
c) Kohler
d) Watson
Answer: b

93. Trial-and-error theory is by—

a) Kohler
b) Skinner
c) Thorndike
d) Bandura
Answer: c

94. Insightful learning was proposed by—

a) Kohler
b) Tolman
c) Bruner
d) Watson
Answer: a

95. Dysgraphia refers to difficulty in—

a) Reading
b) Writing
c) Speaking
d) Remembering
Answer: b

96. “Metacognition” means—

a) Thinking about thinking
b) Memory
c) Rote learning
d) Rapid reading
Answer: a

97. Formative assessment is—

a) Daily & diagnostic
b) Once a year
c) 100-mark test
d) Only oral
Answer: a

98. Summative assessment is—

a) Continuous
b) End-of-term assessment
c) Only multiple-choice
d) Only practical
Answer: b

99. Inclusive education means—

a) Only disabled children
b) Education for all regardless of differences
c) Only slow learners
d) Only gifted
Answer: b

100. Remedial teaching is used for—

a) Bright students
b) Students with learning gaps
c) All students
d) Teachers
Answer: b

Policies, RTE, NCF, NEP

101. According to NEP 2020, Board exams will be—

a) Conducted twice yearly
b) Removed completely
c) Replaced with internal tests
d) Only MCQs
Answer: a

102. According to RTE Act, admission cannot be denied due to—

a) Age
b) Locality
c) Gender
d) Any of the above
Answer: d

103. NEP 2020 aims to achieve universal foundational literacy & numeracy by—

a) 2022
b) 2025
c) 2030
d) 2040
Answer: b

104. NCF 2005 considers the learner as—

a) Passive recipient
b) Active constructor of knowledge
c) Memorizer
d) Listener
Answer: b

105. According to NCF 2005, exams should focus on—

a) Recall
b) Application and understanding
c) Lengthy writing
d) Only MCQs
Answer: b

106. The RTE Act mandates SMCs for schools with—

a) Private schools only
b) Government & aided schools
c) Only secondary schools
d) Only primary schools
Answer: b

107. Section 12(1)(c) of RTE relates to—

a) Teacher qualification
b) 25% reservation in private schools
c) No detention policy
d) Pupil-teacher ratio
Answer: b

108. NEP 2020 proposes ECCE for children of age—

a) 3–6 years
b) 2–7 years
c) 5–10 years
d) 6–12 years
Answer: a

109. RTE prescribes minimum instructional hours per academic year in primary—

a) 600 hours
b) 800 hours
c) 1000 hours
d) 1200 hours
Answer: b

110. NCF 2005 emphasizes which language as medium of instruction?

a) English only
b) Mother tongue/local language
c) Regional language only
d) Sanskrit
Answer: b

111. NPE 1986 introduced Operation Blackboard to improve—

a) Teacher salaries
b) Primary school resources
c) Secondary education
d) Higher education
Answer: b

112. POA 1992 emphasized—

a) Privatization
b) Equity & access
c) Entrance exams
d) Only ICT
Answer: b

113. RTE prohibits screening procedure for—

a) Admission
b) Scholarship
c) Teacher job
d) Transfers
Answer: a

114. NEP 2020 recommends the use of—

a) Only textbooks
b) Multilingualism
c) Single language policy
d) Only English
Answer: b

115. SSE in NEP 2020 stands for—

a) School Standard Examination
b) State School Education
c) School Social Evaluation
d) Student Support Education
Answer: a

116. NCF 2005 views assessment as—

a) A punitive tool
b) Support for learning
c) Only grading
d) Fact-checking
Answer: b

117. Mid-Day Meal Scheme became a legal right under—

a) RTE Act
b) NEP 2020
c) NPE 1986
d) SSA
Answer: a

118. National Curriculum Framework is developed by—

a) CBSE
b) NCERT
c) UGC
d) AICTE
Answer: b

119. NPE 1968 stressed on—

a) Science education
b) Compulsory English
c) Coding in early grades
d) Online learning
Answer: a

120. NEP 2020 suggests vocational exposure from class—

a) Class 6
b) Class 8
c) Class 10
d) Class 12
Answer: a

 

 Institutions & Schemes

121. SSA primarily aimed at—

a) Higher education
b) Universalizing elementary education
c) Only private schools
d) Examination reforms
Answer: b

122. RMSA aimed at—

a) Primary education
b) Secondary education improvement
c) Teacher training only
d) University reforms
Answer: b

123. Samagra Shiksha is an integration of—

a) SSA + RMSA + TE
b) UGC + CBSE
c) NCERT + SCERT
d) SSA + NIOS
Answer: a

124. DIKSHA is a platform for—

a) E-learning and teacher training
b) School recruitment
c) Scholarships
d) Admissions
Answer: a

125. NIOS mainly promotes—

a) Distance and open schooling
b) Competitive exams
c) B.Ed. degrees
d) International exchange
Answer: a

126. PM Poshan (new MDM) launched in—

a) 2021
b) 2015
c) 2019
d) 2023
Answer: a

127. KGBV schools are meant for—

a) Gifted girls
b) Girls from disadvantaged groups
c) Boys from tribal areas
d) Urban students
Answer: b

128. Navodaya schools focus on—

a) Rural talented children
b) Urban English-medium students
c) Undergraduates
d) Pre-primary
Answer: a

129. PM SHRI Schools will be—

a) PPP-mode
b) Model schools aligned with NEP 2020
c) Rural-only project
d) Private schools
Answer: b

130. PISA assesses—

a) Teacher performance
b) Student competencies globally
c) Board exams
d) School resources
Answer: b

 Thinkers & Philosophies

131. “Education is the manifestation of perfection already in man”—

a) Gandhi
b) Aurobindo
c) Vivekananda
d) Tagore
Answer: c

132. Froebel called play—

a) Waste of time
b) Labor
c) Highest form of self-activity
d) Punishment
Answer: c

133. Bruner proposed—

a) Spiral curriculum
b) Conditioning
c) Mind mapping
d) Direct instruction
Answer: a

134. Maria Montessori called teachers—

a) Dictators
b) Disciplinarians
c) Directresses
d) Managers
Answer: c

135. Dewey said education is—

a) Preparation for life
b) Life itself
c) Only training
d) Moral development only
Answer: b

136. Gandhiji emphasized—

a) Free play
b) Productive craft
c) Rote learning
d) Elite English education
Answer: b

137. Tagore’s education was influenced by—

a) Industrialism
b) Naturalism & humanism
c) Militarism
d) Memorization
Answer: b

138. Rousseau emphasized—

a) Teach the child according to nature
b) Competitive exams
c) Strict discipline
d) Zero freedom
Answer: a

139. Kohlberg’s theory deals with—

a) Cognitive development
b) Moral development
c) Social development
d) Emotional development
Answer: b

140. Erikson’s theory deals with—

a) Memory
b) Psychosocial development
c) Language development
d) Behaviorism
Answer: b

141. Vygotsky believed private speech helps in—

a) Distraction
b) Cognitive development & self-regulation
c) Punishment
d) Memory recall only
Answer: b

142. Piaget believed knowledge develops through—

a) Conditioning
b) Maturation & active exploration
c) Rewards
d) Punishments
Answer: b

143. Skinner emphasized—

a) Operant conditioning
b) Trial & error
c) Insight learning
d) Social learning
Answer: a

144. Bandura believed learning occurs through—

a) Repetition
b) Observation & imitation
c) Memorization
d) Dictation
Answer: b

145. Gardner’s MI theory includes—

a) Only logical & linguistic
b) 8 or more intelligences
c) Only academic intelligence
d) Only practical intelligence
Answer: b

 Pedagogy & Assessment

146. Remedial teaching helps—

a) Students with learning difficulties
b) Only gifted students
c) Only toppers
d) Only adults
Answer: a

147. Diagnostic assessment identifies—

a) Learning gaps
b) Exam grades
c) Class discipline
d) Attendance
Answer: a

148. Formative assessment is—

a) During learning
b) End of term
c) Only written
d) Only oral
Answer: a

149. Criterion-referenced test compares—

a) Student with another student
b) Student performance with set standard
c) Student with teacher
d) Student with school
Answer: b

150. Reliability of a test means—

a) Test measures future goals
b) Test gives consistent results
c) Test is lengthy
d) Test is easy
Answer: b

 Policies, NEP, RTE, NCF

151. NEP 2020 emphasizes vocational education from class—

a) 6
b) 8
c) 9
d) 10
Answer: a

152. According to RTE, free and compulsory education is for children aged—

a) 3–14 years
b) 6–14 years
c) 5–12 years
d) 6–16 years
Answer: b

153. NCF 2005 recommends assessment to be—

a) Summative only
b) Formative & continuous
c) Punitive
d) Competitive
Answer: b

154. NEP 2020 encourages—

a) Multilingual education
b) Only English medium
c) Memorization-based learning
d) Rigid curriculum
Answer: a

155. RTE Section 19 ensures—

a) Minimum infrastructure
b) No detention till class 8
c) Teacher qualification
d) 25% reservation in private schools
Answer: b

156. Kothari Commission recommended—

a) 6% of GDP for education
b) Only private schooling
c) Less teacher training
d) No vocational courses
Answer: a

157. NPE 1986 focused on—

a) Universal access
b) Privatization
c) ICT only
d) Competitive exams
Answer: a

158. POA 1992 aimed to—

a) Implement NPE 1986
b) Reduce school hours
c) Only urban education
d) Replace NCERT
Answer: a

159. Samagra Shiksha integrates—

a) SSA, RMSA, TE
b) NIOS + CBSE
c) DIET + KVS
d) Only RMSA
Answer: a

160. NEP 2020 recommends National Assessment Center—

a) NCERT
b) NCF
c) NIOS
d) NAAC
Answer: a

161. RTE Section 12(1)(c) relates to—

a) Reservation in private schools
b) Teacher recruitment
c) Curriculum design
d) Assessment policy
Answer: a

162. NCF 2005 stresses on—

a) Constructivism & learner-centered pedagogy
b) Rote memorization
c) Only exams
d) Teacher-centric learning
Answer: a

163. NIPUN Bharat focuses on—

a) Foundational literacy & numeracy
b) Sports development
c) Secondary education
d) Teacher recruitment
Answer: a

164. RTE prescribes pupil–teacher ratio at primary level as—

a) 1:20
b) 1:30
c) 1:35
d) 1:40
Answer: b

165. NEP 2020 recommends experiential learning through—

a) Projects & hands-on activities
b) Memorization only
c) Exams only
d) Online quizzes
Answer: a

Institutions & Schemes

166. KVS is governed by—

a) MHRD/Ministry of Education
b) UGC
c) AICTE
d) NCTE
Answer: a

167. DIETs focus on—

a) Teacher training at district level
b) Higher education
c) Vocational training only
d) Assessment reforms
Answer: a

168. SCERT functions at—

a) State level
b) National level
c) Block level
d) Village level
Answer: a

169. NIOS provides—

a) Open schooling & on-demand exams
b) Teacher recruitment
c) Only vocational courses
d) Only CBSE syllabi
Answer: a

170. NAAC accredits—

a) Higher education institutions
b) Schools
c) Vocational centers
d) Teacher training colleges only
Answer: a

171. Samagra Shiksha’s key objective is—

a) Universal education & quality improvement
b) Privatization
c) Only ICT integration
d) Only secondary education
Answer: a

172. DIKSHA portal is mainly for—

a) Teacher training & digital resources
b) Student exams
c) School admission
d) Scholarships
Answer: a

173. KGBV schools target—

a) Disadvantaged girls
b) Boys in urban areas
c) Gifted students
d) Private school students
Answer: a

174. PM SHRI Schools are aligned with—

a) NEP 2020
b) RTE 2009
c) NCF 2005
d) NPE 1968
Answer: a

175. Navodaya Vidyalayas focus on—

a) Rural talented students
b) Urban elite
c) Only tribal girls
d) Teachers only
Answer: a

176. PISA assesses—

a) Student competencies in reading, math, science
b) Teacher efficiency
c) Board exams
d) School facilities
Answer: a

177. Mid-Day Meal Scheme aims to—

a) Reduce malnutrition & improve attendance
b) Teacher training
c) Urban education
d) Vocational learning
Answer: a

178. SSA stands for—

a) Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan
b) Secondary School Assistance
c) Special School Access
d) State School Authority
Answer: a

179. RMSA focuses on—

a) Secondary education
b) Primary education
c) Higher education
d) Adult literacy
Answer: a

180. PM Poshan is the new name of—

a) Mid-Day Meal Scheme
b) NIPUN Bharat
c) RMSA
d) Samagra Shiksha
Answer: a

Thinkers & Philosophies

181. Dewey viewed school as—

a) Miniature society
b) Only exam center
c) Discipline zone
d) Memorization hub
Answer: a

182. Montessori emphasized—

a) Self-directed activity & practical life skills
b) Punishment
c) Competitive exams
d) Only lecture method
Answer: a

183. Froebel is known as—

a) Father of Kindergarten
b) Father of modern psychology
c) Father of NCF
d) Father of RTE
Answer: a

184. Gandhiji’s Nai Talim focuses on—

a) Craft-based productive learning
b) Competitive learning
c) Rote memorization
d) Urban elite education
Answer: a

185. Tagore’s Shantiniketan emphasized—

a) Nature & holistic learning
b) Exams & grades
c) Urban schooling
d) Strict discipline
Answer: a

186. Rousseau emphasized—

a) Learning according to nature
b) Exams as main goal
c) Punishment
d) Teacher authority only
Answer: a

187. Piaget’s cognitive development theory includes—

a) Sensorimotor, Preoperational, Concrete, Formal
b) Only formal operations
c) Punishment-based learning
d) Observational learning only
Answer: a

188. Vygotsky introduced—

a) Zone of Proximal Development (ZPD)
b) Operant conditioning
c) Classical conditioning
d) Insight learning
Answer: a

189. Bandura’s learning theory emphasizes—

a) Observation & imitation
b) Punishment only
c) Drill & practice
d) Only reinforcement
Answer: a

190. Gardner’s Multiple Intelligence includes—

a) Linguistic, Logical-mathematical, Spatial, Musical, Bodily-kinesthetic, Interpersonal, Intrapersonal, Naturalistic
b) Only linguistic & logical
c) Only academic intelligence
d) Only emotional intelligence
Answer: a

Pedagogy, Assessment, Child Development

191. Formative assessment is—

a) Continuous, diagnostic, supportive
b) Only end-of-term
c) Only written tests
d) Punitive evaluation
Answer: a

192. Summative assessment is—

a) End-of-term, grading-focused
b) Continuous
c) Only oral
d) Only project-based
Answer: a

193. Remedial teaching is provided for—

a) Students with learning difficulties
b) Bright students
c) Teachers
d) All students equally
Answer: a

194. Dyslexia affects—

a) Reading & comprehension
b) Writing only
c) Speech only
d) Math only
Answer: a

195. Dysgraphia affects—

a) Writing ability
b) Reading ability
c) Speaking ability
d) Memory
Answer: a

196. Metacognition means—

a) Thinking about thinking
b) Rapid memorization
c) Only verbal ability
d) Physical learning
Answer: a

197. Criterion-referenced tests measure—

a) Learner vs standard
b) Learner vs peer group
c) Only intelligence
d) Only aptitude
Answer: a

198. No-detention policy existed till—

a) Class 5
b) Class 8
c) Class 10
d) Class 12
Answer: b

199. Inclusive education means—

a) Education for all including children with disabilities
b) Only gifted students
c) Only slow learners
d) Only urban children
Answer: a

200. CCE stands for—

a) Continuous & Comprehensive Evaluation
b) Central Curriculum Education
c) Child-Centered Education
d) Creative Classroom Exercise
Answer: a

 

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